S.O.S. Mathematics CyberBoard

Your Resource for mathematics help on the web!
It is currently Sun, 1 Dec 2024 06:04:56 UTC

All times are UTC [ DST ]




Post new topic Reply to topic  [ 1 post ] 
Author Message
PostPosted: Thu, 22 Jul 2021 17:46:55 UTC 
Offline
S.O.S. Oldtimer
User avatar

Joined: Fri, 13 Dec 2013 14:47:37 UTC
Posts: 200
Let f be a continuous, positive, decreasing function deļ¬ned on [1, \infty). How to show that the improper integral \int_{1}^{\infty} f(x) \,dx converges iff the sequence \{a_n\} defined by a_n=\int_{1}^{n} f(x) \,dx converges by using only theorems/facts from calculus I and II? Thank you.

Can we prove it by using the inequality a_n\leq\int_{1}^{t} f(x) \,dx\leq a_{n+1} for t\in[n,n+1]? (The function \int_{1}^{t} f(x) \,dx is continuous and increasing and the sequence {\int_{1}^{n} f(x) \,dx} is increasing.) How can I show that the function \int_{1}^{t} f(x) \,dx is bounded above if \int_{1}^{\infty} f(x) \,dx is convergent? If I can show that the function \int_{1}^{t} f(x) \,dx is bounded above then I can show that the sequence {\int_{1}^{n} f(x) \,dx} is convergent.


Top
 Profile  
 
Display posts from previous:  Sort by  
Post new topic Reply to topic  [ 1 post ] 

All times are UTC [ DST ]


Who is online

Users browsing this forum: No registered users


You cannot post new topics in this forum
You cannot reply to topics in this forum
You cannot edit your posts in this forum
You cannot delete your posts in this forum

Search for:
Jump to:  
cron
Contact Us | S.O.S. Mathematics Homepage
Privacy Statement | Search the "old" CyberBoard

users online during the last hour
Powered by phpBB © 2001, 2005-2017 phpBB Group.
Copyright © 1999-2017 MathMedics, LLC. All rights reserved.
Math Medics, LLC. - P.O. Box 12395 - El Paso TX 79913 - USA